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Single Liners in Orthopaedics and Ophthalmology for 2019 AIIMS Exams

Single Liners in Orthopaedics and Ophthalmology for 2019 AIIMS Exams

Aims Pg exams have been modified. The 2019 neet pg exams include Single liners as well as true false questions. The New exam schedule is a different pattern. Students should get adopted quickly with this pattern of exams. It is better to be fully prepared for the New Examination pattern. These questions will be given marks and each mark will matter.

Orthopaedics and Ophthalmology are minor subjects but most students do not know the types of questions that will be asked ahead. We have prepared a sample of such questions for our students. Let you practice and see for yourself.

 Primary metabolic bone disorder in scurvy is:

Ans. Decreased osteoid matrix formation

 A 10 month old child presents with two weeks history of fever, vomiting and alteration of sensorium Cranial CT scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus, The most likely etiological agent is :

Ans. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

 Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is a disease of:

Ans. Sarcolemmal proteins

 A person with prolonged usage of contact lenses presented with irritation of left eye. After examination a diagnosis of keratitis was made and corneal scrapings revealed growth of pseudomonas aeroginosa. The bacteria were observed to be multidrug resistant. Which of the following best explains the mechanism of antimicrobial resistance in these isolated pseudomonas aeroginosa strains:

Ans. Ability of Pseudomonas to produce biofilms

 A patient with ptosis presents with retraction of the ptotic eye lid on chewing. This represents:

Ans. Marcus Gunn Jaw Winking Syndrome

 Arden Index is related to

Ans. EOG (Electrooculogram)

 A 30 year old man has 6/5 vision each eye, unaided. His cycloplegic retinoscopy is +1.0 D. At 1 metre distance. His complaints are blurring of new sprint at 30 cm, that clears up in about two minutes. The most probable diagnosis is:

Ans. Accommodative inertia.

 A 25 year old male gives history of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. There is no history of trauma. On examination the anterior segment is normal but there is no fundal
glow. Which one of the following is the most likely cause:

Ans. Vitreous haemorrhage

 The mother of a one and a half year old child gives history of a white reflex from one eye for the past I month. On computed tomography scan of the orbit there is calcification seen within the globe. The most likely diagnosis is:

Ans. Retinoblastoma .

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